Hello!
Could anyone answer this question: https://physics.stackexchange.com/qu...thefickslow
I am sorry for such a form, but I don't know how to handle LaTeX here.
Thank you for any help.

Hello!
Could anyone answer this question: https://physics.stackexchange.com/qu...thefickslow
I am sorry for such a form, but I don't know how to handle LaTeX here.
Thank you for any help.
But what these solutions describes since there is only one diffusion process? Describes the magnetization vector in NMR and I want to get the signal attenuation due to diffusion. Under the standard asumption about gradient linearity, the imaginary part is equal to zero, but I wanted to calculate it for more genaral case. Can I just reject the imaginary part as devoided of the physical meaning?
Ok. But what is the physical meaning of the existence two solutions?
So, if the real part coresponds to x direction and the imaginary part to y direction on the plane on which the vector is spinning, there are separate solutions for x and y? It doesn't make sense for me. Thank you for answers anyway.
This is not true (and it is not what I have been trying to explain).
No, this is not what I meant. You need to study differential equations, this is not working, you lack the fundamentals.on the plane on which the vector is spinning, there are separate solutions for x and y? It doesn't make sense for me. Thank you for answers anyway.
I know that it is not what you meant, but it is true, because it is my assumption. I wrote: "Psi describes the magnetization vector in NMR". The vector is rotation on the xy plane and is given by the complex number. Perhaps I did not make it clear enough in the previous posts.
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